T-6A Transition Check Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What does joker fuel refer to in flight operations?
• Which component is indicated by a fault when the BUS TIE illuminates?
• What is the altitude loss in a 60-degree bank turn during an ELP?
• What is the correct procedure for executing a missed approach in a T-6A?
• When should you begin your descent from a straight-in approach with flaps landing?
• What happens if the OIL PX warning annunciator illuminates after initially extinguishing during the start sequence in cold temperatures?
• Which annunciator alerts the pilot to low hydraulic fluid levels in the system?
• What is the recommended action if the T-6A experiences a chip light on the ground?
• Which component is key to understanding the startup sequence in the T-6A?
• What squawk code should you use when you cancel IFR after entering Dogface?
• Approximately how many feet of horizontal travel do you gain when trading 20 knots in an ELP?
• How long can the main battery typically power items on the main battery bus?
• What is the recommended torque setting for approach turns with maximum performance?
• How many pounds of thrust does the T-6 produce at sea level and zero airspeed on a standard day?
• What is the maximum degree of bank permitted in the final turn?
• What should the pilot keep in mind regarding configuration during the approach?
• What altitude should be avoided for aerobatic maneuvers and other practices?
• If a go around is initiated in the landing phase, what power setting should be used?
• What must the hydraulic fluid level indicator read to indicate a full reservoir?
• When experiencing a flameout, which annunciators are likely to illuminate?
• What is the required pitch attitude when advancing PCL to MAX during a missed approach?
• During a runaway trim situation, reducing airspeed to which range will help mitigate control forces?
• At what Mach speed does the airspeed indicator information become active?
• When feathered, the propeller blades are aligned in which direction relative to the wind?
• What component controls the propeller pitch in the T-6 aircraft?
• The electronic governor will maintain Np at what percentage with the PMU functioning?
• What does the PMU STATUS light indicate in flight?
• How does engine bleed air contribute to cockpit safety?
• True or False: Compressor instability sounds during engine start are acceptable if the PMU permits?
• What is the pitch range for a nose high power on stall?
• What is the minimum extension required for the main gear strut?
• What defines a hard landing according to the performance standards?
• Which of the following statements is true about the aircraft’s brake performance?
• What is the function of the PMU in relation to the T-6A engine operations?
• How long will the ELT transmit when activated?
• Will the brakes hold the aircraft on snow or ice covered runways with the PCL at MAX?
• For a 1,000 foot pattern, what should be the altitude approximately halfway through the turn?
• What does the white diamond on the AOA gauge show?
• What is the required minimum separation in feet before initiating takeoff after another departure?
• What could be a potential consequence of moving the PCL above idle before N1 stabilizes?
• What is the required action for dual crews when executing emergency landing pattern procedures?
• What is the purpose of the emergency oxygen system?
• What additional speed should be added to the rotate speed in gusty wind conditions?
• What does a flashing red light indicate when on the ground?
• What is the optimum sink rate when flying in a clean glide at 125 KIAS?
• What are the three positions of the pressurization control switch?
• What is the impact on thrust generation when altitude increases in a flat-rated engine like the T-6?
• When should crosswind controls be released during the takeoff roll?
• How many feet of increased altitude can be gained from trading 10 knots of extra airspeed during an Emergency Landing Pattern (ELP)?
• How many pounds of usable fuel remains in the affected wing tank when the L or R FUEL LO annunciator illuminates?
• True or False: Pressing the LAMP TEST switch tests the gear handle and indicator lights in both cockpits.
• What does the term "CMD FWD" refer to in the ISS?
• Can the flap position be visually verified from the cockpit?
• How many VHF memory frequencies does the RMU have the capability to hold?
• What are the three means of clearing in priority order?
• What are the indications of a spiral?
• What happens to mode A/C/S interrogations when the ADS-B transponder is on the ground?
• What does a CLEF check involve?
• What altitude must be maintained when doing maneuvers during a training flight?
• Is it permissible to perform motoring with the canopy open?
• What adjustment is made when climbing to maintain a target airspeed during normal conditions?
• What minimum altitude should be reached before initiating a turn following takeoff?
• What is the zero G limit time?
• During the overspeed governor check, what percentage of torque should be verified to reach 100 +/-2% Np?
• What is a sign that the emergency hydraulic accumulator is fully charged?
• What is the target airspeed for slow flight with flaps landing?
• What altitude should you maintain until you reach the departure end of the runway?
• The brake system is part of which hydraulic system in the T-6A?
• During a straight-in approach, to what speed should you slow down once configured prior to starting your descent?
• How many positions does the starter switch have?
• What is the local climbout procedure at Woodring?
• What is the effect known as torque effect?
• What is meant by the term "mission analysis" in CRM?
• Is electrical power needed to operate the emergency gear extension system?
• What airspeed should you fly when setting up the landing attitude TP stall?
• How should the visual reference appear during the rotation attitude at takeoff?
• When can solo syllabus sorties be performed?
• What can downdrafts in microbursts exceed in feet per minute?
• How many annunciators are typically illuminated on the initial application of power?
• Which button do you press on the backup UHF control head to change from channel mode to manual frequencies?
• What should be done if abnormal engine noise is detected during flight?
• What is the result of reversing the rudder direction during a steady state spin?
• What is the cockpit pressure altitude at 31,000 feet?
• At what pressure altitude does the fresh air valve automatically close during climbout?
• In the absence of crosswind, how should the control stick be deflected to compensate for torque during takeoff?
• At what Np does the PMU switch to the battery bus?
• During the PMU Autostart procedure, when will the ground start sequence terminate?
• What is the correct procedure to follow when encountering a steady green light while on taxi?
• What component maintains Np at 100+/-2% if the PMU is lost or deactivated?
• What altitude will you maintain when breaking out from low closed downwind until clear of the pattern?
• What phrase should you use when cleared for a full-stop landing?
• What phenomenon does the gyroscopic effect refer to?
• What are the assumptions made regarding maximum abort speed?
• If a tire fails during takeoff, what is the appropriate action?
• How can compressor stalls be initially recognized?
• What is the primary function of the anti-G system in relation to bleed air?
• What is the primary function of the chip detector in the reduction gearbox?
• What action is appropriate when experiencing fluctuating indications after a compressor stall?
• What altitude should aircraft maintain when operating under a restricted pattern at Eastside?
• If you are on a straight-in approach and the controller says "STRAIGHT IN, DISCONTINUE," what is the appropriate action to take?
• At what DME should aircraft be at 13,000 feet during the Cormi stereo?
• On a standard day, 100% torque is available up to what altitude range?
• What is the minimum taxi spacing required at night?
• Is it true that you should not request a straight-in approach if a straight-in from a different geographic request point is within five miles?
• What powers the feather dump solenoid valve?
• What value does the white triangle on the AOA gauge represent?
• What visibility conditions are necessary for performing aerobatics and confidence maneuvers?
• What glide path should you fly while on final approach?
• When should you consider breaking low?
• What is the break zone in relation to the runway?
• If the IOAT is between 96 and 121 degrees Celsius during engine start, what temperature will the PMU default to?
• Which feature does the EDM NOT manage?
• What is the maximum bank angle limit when flying with ice accumulation?
• For the PODDS stereo, what is the designated KIAS to be maintained?
• What is the minimum taxi spacing when staggered?
• What is the primary purpose of the oil pressure indicator in the T-6 aircraft?
• When should you accomplish items in the after landing checklist?
• What is the continuous amp requirement for external ground power?
• Which option correctly defines the components of ORM 3-2-1?
• At what level does the potential for lightning strikes increase?
• What does ITT stand for in relation to engine monitoring?
• What does the PEDD indicate regarding engine performance?
• When a lightning warning is in effect within 5NM, what must all aircraft do?
• When the DEFOG switch is set to ON, where does the bleed air inflow valve move?
• What is the expected energy gain/loss when performing a chandelle maneuver?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the six annunciators relating to fuel systems?
• What action should be taken if windshear is encountered during an approach for landing?
• What are the chock times for local sorties?
• What are the minimum weather requirements for performing aerobatics?
• True or False: No rise of ITT within 10 seconds of fuel flow indications indicates a no start.
• What is the VHF GUARD frequency in the T-6 aircraft?
• What is the minimum airspeed in the closed pattern for safe operations?
• Is a formal transfer of aircraft control required for the brake check?
• What is the immediate consequence of moving the PCL to cutoff during ground operations?
• What sustained Np should we avoid to prevent damage from ground resonance?
• What is the maximum ramp weight of the aircraft?
• Do low fuel warning lights provide accurate minimum fuel level indications during a fuel pump failure?
• What is the minimum airspeed to set up for intentional spin entry?
• Which frequencies does the ELT broadcast on when activated?
• If the OIL PX annunciator lights up and oil pressure is below 5 psi, what is the initial recommended action?
• The EDM passes oil pressure data to which computer that contains the logic to illuminate CWS annunciators?
• How long after landing will the PMU STATUS light illuminate if there are issues not serious enough to revert to manual?
• Is the altitude restriction of 400’ AGL applicable during turns in the VFR pattern?
• At what minimum psi can the hydraulic system power essential functions like landing gear and flaps?
• How many seals does the canopy of the aircraft have?
• Can the GEN switch be on in both cockpits simultaneously?
• What is the proper action when reaching 8000 feet pressure altitude in the T-6?
• What is the minimum weather required for a Buttonhook status on a 17 day?
• What type of flaps does the T-6 have?
• What temperature should GPUs be recommended for starting an aircraft?
• What is the primary function of the Fire 1 check during the over the rail checklist?
• During normal use, what happens to the inboard main landing gear doors when all landing gear are fully down and locked?
• What happens to the power output shaft speed after it passes through the reduction gearbox?
• What are the chock times for out and back missions?
• What is the length of the nylon lowering line on the SSK?
• What airspeed range is recommended for airstarts from 15,001 to 20,000 feet msl?
• Are normal flap operations available during a battery bus failure?
• What should you do if you encounter a conflict during low approaches?
• What is the threshold crossing speed relative to the final airspeed?
• Under what conditions should you not use landing flaps for a full stop?
• What happens if the PMU aborts an engine start?
• Above what altitude should all parts of aerobatic maneuvers be performed?
• How does the landing gear position affect stall characteristics?
• How does the T-6 ensure the engine remains lubricated if the primary oil filter is compromised?
• What indicates a rapid decrease in engine power during a failure?
• If the ST READY annunciator is not illuminated during engine start, what does this indicate about auto start protection?
• What is indicated by the inner probe of the wing fuel?
• When should you not request closed?
• What information is not processed by the PMU according to the specifications?
• How long may it take for the electrically controlled defog valve to close if it is turned off?
• What happens when you place the PCL to cutoff?
• How does the fuel auto balance system function during flight?
• What does the outer probe of the wing fuel provide?
• Which piece of equipment is included in the hot battery bus?
• For negative G operations, what is the maximum time limit before exceeding -2.5 G?
• When can a pilot begin descending back into the pattern from the high pattern?
• What is the pitch range for a nose low power on stall?
• What is the proper action if you are directed to orbit but the controller does not respond on high key?
• What power setting is required to maintain 200 KIAS in level flight during normal wind?
• After turning on the GENERATOR switch, how long should you wait before activating the AVIONICS MASTER switch?
• What is the purpose of maintaining spacing on the inside or closed downwind leg?
• True or False: When the controller tells you to break departure end, you have to respond with your callsign.
• When taking off/landing in areas of suspected windshear, by how many knots should rotation and approach speeds be increased?
• The secondary pitot static system provides information to which computer?
• In what order should you trim the control surfaces?
• What speed in KIAS must the aircraft reach for the trim system to make further inputs after takeoff trim is set?
• What psi adjustment is made for each degree above/below 70 degrees Fahrenheit for the emergency oxygen bottle pressure?
• How far past the departure end of the runway will you turn crosswind if you are on an offset low approach?
• True or False: The TCAS processor manages traffic both 10,000 feet above and below the aircraft, even if the TAS display shows only up to 8700 feet.
• What are the two positions of the ELT switch?
• What is the pattern priority for aircraft established at Dogface?
• True or False: If the main oil filter becomes clogged, a filter bypass valve allows unfiltered oil to continue to lubricate the engine?
• Before moving the PCL above idle during an airstart, N1 must stabilize at what percentage?
• What is the expected ground/inflight voltage of the generator?
• What track heading will you follow when departing from 35R?
• What is the maximum endurance AOA value to maintain during holding speed?
• Where is the appropriate T-6A landing area typically located?
• What may the engine oil pressure indicator display up to when the engine is shut down?
• What is the entry power setting recommended for a power on stall?
• What is the minimum altitude required for aerobatics and confidence maneuvers?
• When operating in gusty wind, when is the full stop with flaps takeoff recommended?
• What should a pilot do immediately after a tire failure during takeoff?
• Is it advised to manually balance the fuel load if AEDD is indicating FP FAIL?
• Which system provides fuel reading in the T-6A when the low fuel warning lights are activated?
• True or False: The sight glass can be used for checking the oil level?
• What is the main purpose of bingo fuel?
• How do you breakout from low closed downwind?
• Which of the following describes the function of the G limiting device in the ejection seat?
• On the Cormi stereo, what altitude must you maintain until established on which radial outbound?
• What is the primary purpose of the PCL during an aircraft abort?
• Which of the following does the Primary Engine Data Display (PEDD) NOT provide?
• Which statement is true regarding the audio toggle switch in the T-6?
• For how long should you hold the AUX BAT test switch to perform a test?
• During unaccelerated, power-on stall entries, is there perceptible natural buffet prior to the stall?
• What does the green arc on the AOA gauge indicate?
• Which priority comes first at Eastside?
• What action should a pilot take when the fuel imbalance exceeds the specified amount?
• At what altitude will max operating speed shift from KIAS to Mach number?
• How many additional pounds of fuel can be added through over the wing refueling?
• During a forced landing scenario, what altitude restriction is in place until ORM 3-2-1 criteria are met?
• When cleared for a stereo route, which altitude must you be above by 6 DME?
• At what altitude should aircrews fly when between NTAs under VFR?
• What are the expected readings for low and high tests during the AOA test?
• What is the minimum altitude for VFR non-local navigation missions?
• What are the two methods of maintaining MOA boundaries without GPS?
• What are the basic rules to apply when handling an emergency procedure (EP)?
• What is a FENCE check when entering and exiting the MOA?
• Which control is found in the FCP but not in the RCP?
• If the bus tie is set to open, which annunciator will illuminate?
• How does flattening or damaging the fire warning loop affect its operation?
• If RAPCON states "INSUFFICIENT SPACING, RETURN TO THE PATTERN," what is your course of action?
• Which gauge reading would indicate a failure in the SCU?
• Which of the following items is NOT found on the hot battery bus?
• What are the RCR readings for dry runway conditions?
• When can you begin the final turn after a straight-in has reported 2 miles?
• What primary information does the Alternate Engine Data Display (AEDD) provide?
• All spacing references and key positions in an ELP are based on what condition of headwind?
• What is an important consideration during the landing roll phase?
• True or False: All maneuvers that can be performed during normal daylight hours can also be executed in extended daylight.
• What action must be taken if the automatic ejection system fails during an emergency?
• What defines the period of extended daylight?
• What is the approximate time required to complete an airstart sequence at 125 KIAS?
• What is the glide ratio for a T-6 in a clean glide at 125 KIAS?
• What is the maximum glide distance calculated in the altitude method?
• What happens to the cockpit if the bleed air inflow valve does not function properly?
• What does a flashing green light indicate when airborne?
• When entering the pattern via a radar release point, at what speed must you establish by the radar initial point?
• What is the most common visual reference used for taxiing staggered?
• What should be considered inop when the EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminates?
• What is the primary difference between a skid and a slip?
• What is the condition for flaps up during a full stop if landing distance is not a concern?
• Which effect describes the aircraft's tendency toYaw away from the direction of aileron input?
• What are some initial indications of an engine failure?
• How long after main gear touchdown does N1 revert back to ground idle?
• What alert might indicate that the backup UHF is in manual frequency mode?
• What is the minimum altitude to conduct OCF recoveries over clouds?
• With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor limits Np below what percentage?
• Is propylene glycol diluted with water the only deicing agent authorized for spraying on the T-6A?
• How many UHF memory frequencies can the RMU in the T-6 hold?
• How is a G-awareness exercise conducted?
• True or False: The EHYD PX LO sensor will still be available with the HYD SYS circuit breaker popped/open.
• For how long will the auxiliary battery provide power to the backup flight instrument and UHF tuning?
• At what altitude is an 8,000 foot cockpit altitude maintained until a pressure of 3.6 +/- 0.2 is reached?
• At what DME must you contact departure control during the climbout?
• Which component of the pitot static system is protected from icing by electrical heating elements?
• Which parameter does the PMU adjust to avoid stress on the propeller during spins?
• In cold weather conditions, how quickly should oil pressure be in an acceptable range post-start?
• Can VHF audio and intercom be heard when the audio toggle switch is set to ALTN?
• How many fuel quantity sensors are used in the T-6A's fuel system?
• What is the priority for the aircraft on crosswind regarding established aircraft?
• What are the four main subsystems that comprise the oil system in the T-6 aircraft?
• How long is the delay between the rear and front seat in the ejection sequence?
• How can you enter a restricted pattern?
• What is the required taxi spacing when in trail?
• The landing is divided into which three phases?
• What is the deflection angle of the flaps in TO position?
• During a lightning within 5NM call, what must all aircraft do?
• What happens when hydraulic pressure drops below 1800 psi?
• What clearing altitude must you reach when following the Vance One departure for 17L?
• What is an indication that you should not go into the break?
• Which system is primarily responsible for providing data to the heading indicator?
• Is automatic fuel balancing disabled when there is a fuel pump failure?
• What is the significance of the placement of static ports on the aircraft?
• What should be done if the PMU FAIL light activates?
• What is the recommended airspeed for flying through turbulence?
• For how long will the ST READY annunciator remain illuminated if activated, regardless of the PCL position?
• For a chandelle, what is the expected altitude gain?
• What is the maximum Np when the PMU is off?
• When should you cross the threshold during landing?
• How long does the emergency oxygen system supply the pilot with oxygen?
• What oil pressure reading may be displayed during an engine situation?
• What is the minimum weather requirement for extended trail maneuvers?
• What action should you take if the PCL is moved before N1 reaches 60% on engine start?
• What psi range does the emergency oxygen cylinder black band represent?
• Where is the reduction gearbox located on the T-6 aircraft?
• What is the impact of high-pressure conditions on engine performance?
• What is the minimum separation between aircraft on the runway when landing at night behind a dissimilar aircraft?
• What is the minimum torque requirement for an aileron roll?
• When are you required to offset during a low approach?
• What airspeed should be maintained on the cruise portion of all NORTH stereos?
• What flight category requires VFR hemispheric altitudes at and above 3,000 feet AGL?
• When VFR cloud clearances do not exist by 2300 ft MSL at ECKHO or FOXTR, what should you do?
• How is maneuvering speed defined?
• How many knots prior to the stall does the artificial stall warning activate?
• What happens if the auto balance system cannot maintain a balance of less than 30 pounds within 2 minutes?
• What is the recommended time frame to check oil for the most accurate results?
• If you are a single ship full-stop landing on the hot side of the runway, when are you permitted to cross to the cold side?
• True or False: The air data computer provides air data corrected for temperature and instrument error.
• Which of the following situations will activate the landing gear position warning?
• What is the function of the actuator connected to the primary fuel pump?
• What is the minimum airspeed required prior to making a turn following takeoff?
• How far from the runway should you roll out on extended runway centerline?
• When entering a restricted pattern at DLLTA, how should you proceed into the pattern?
• At what altitude should the slip be removed during an ELP?
• How many degrees of bank should typically be used in the final turn?
• Which of the following signifies an unplanned approach back to the runway?
• What happens to the hydraulic system when pressure exceeds the set limit?
• What is the maximum N1 with the PMU on?
• What is the recommended penetration speed for thunderstorms?
• What does it indicate when both red and amber OIL PX annunciators illuminate while oil pressure is normal?
• What is Np in idle on the ground?
• What is the spacing distance from the runway during a normal pattern without wind?
• The reduction gearbox reduces the power turbine output shaft speed from what speed to what speed?
• How many Volts AC does the Permanent Magnetic Alternator supply to the PMU?
• What defines severe windshear?
• What maneuver is represented by the acronym SCATSAFE?
• Can the firewall shutoff valve be reset by pushing the handle down?
• What is the maximum IOAT for start?
• What is the maximum amps allowed for external ground power for 2 minutes?
• When ice and/or snow are present, what is the required spacing for taxiing on the centerline?
• Under what conditions should the Manual override handle be used during ejection?
• What powers the PMU in the T-6A aircraft?
• What is the high pattern altitude at Dogface?
• What percentage of runway length is the minimum for using landing flaps if weight is heavy?
• At how many units does the AOA computer activate the stick shaker?
• Is the pilot required to monitor all parameters during airstarts?
• True or False: T-6 crews are allowed to taxi behind a T-1 with engines running in the EOR.
• What is the relationship between proper approach speed and stall speed in the T-6A?
• What is the maximum number of aircraft allowed in a restricted pattern?
• What type of electrical system components should be verified during the "Fire 1, Off, off, standbys good" check?
• What is the standard inside downwind spacing reference for no flap configurations?
• What is the appropriate nose attitude for rotation during takeoff?
• What is the recommended holding speed for T-6A during clean configuration?
• How many hours is operation with only the engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump limited to?
• True or False: The propeller pitch is varied to maintain an Np of 2,000 rpm.
• What range of gauge readings may indicate zero G due to gauge tolerance?
• What is the capacity for NAV memory frequencies in the RMU of the T-6?
• What can a pilot typically expect from the control input during a progressive spin?
• What is the volts/amps rating of the auxiliary battery in the T-6A?
• Above what fuel weight may 3 to 5 knots above final turn and final airspeed be required to maintain on speed AOA?
• What altitude must crews maintain if the Vance Altimeter is below 29.92 when using the high block?
• How quickly should N1 rise after activating the starter switch during an immediate airstart attempt?
• What is the recommended KIAS range for an aileron roll?
• Which situation requires the cessation of all ground operations during thunderstorms?
• Using max power, how many knots of airspeed can be gained for every 1,000 feet of altitude traded?
• Which item is automatically shed when the GEN annunciator illuminates?
• What is the maximum design energy absorption capability of the brakes?
• What are the suggested airspeeds for airstart attempts from sea level to 15,000 feet msl?
• If all power is lost, how accurately does the standby attitude indicator display pitch and roll indications?
• Which of the following is NOT a part of engine failure indicators during a FEVER check?
• What happens to the other cockpit's switch if one cockpit's GEN switch is turned on?
• How long does the weighted rod in the pickup valve provide minimum fuel regardless of orientation?
• What is the normal range for the temperature of the air entering the cockpit?
• What is the expected minimum amount of battery power available for the battery bus items when the bus tie is open?
• How much altitude is typically lost during an airstart attempt at 125 KIAS?
• What does a steady green light indicate on the ground?
• What reduction in climb performance may be observed with the defog ON and the PCL retarded to maintain ITT within limits?
• At what percent N1 does the PMU deactivate the igniters and boost pump, assuming fuel pressure is adequate?
• What is the maximum takeoff weight of the aircraft?
• True or False: If a start using external power is aborted, subsequent starts should not be attempted.
• How can an operator switch the ELT between the ON and ARM positions?
• In the event of an engine failure with the PCL out of the cutoff position, what happens to the propeller?
• What is the purpose of the Engine Data Manager (EDM)?
• True or False: The illumination of the BAT BUS annunciator during engine start is normal.
• What is the standard rotate speed in a no-wind condition?
• When should you not go into the break?
• How does the Propeller Interface Unit (PIU) adjust the propeller pitch?
• What is the allowable difference for both low and high tests in the AOA test?
• During runway change operations, where do you perform a breakout?
• What is the breakout altitude at Eastside and Dogface?
• How many presets can the backup UHF control head store?
• At what airspeed should excess airspeed be traded for altitude in a T-6?
• What is the minimum fuel required to depart the high pattern with gear extended?
• At the threshold, the airspeed should be approximately how many knots below final airspeed?
• True or False: Fuel load balancing should be attempted even if the AEDD shows FP Fail.
• In the event of ice accumulation, by how many KIAS must approach speeds be increased?
• Can you extend the flaps prior to landing gear with the engine out?
• What altitude range should the altitude sensing device be set for high altitude ejections?
• Is OCF considered a situation where the aircraft does not respond to flight controls?
• Negative G operation, including inverted flight, is limited to how many seconds?
• What is the function of the UHF transceiver connected to the auxiliary battery bus?
• How much altitude is lost in a 30-degree bank turn during an ELP?
• What is a progressive spin?
• During a TCAS warning, which action is advised for the pilot?
• What is an aggravated spin?
• What is the voltage requirement for external ground power?
• True or False: You should add one half the gust factor to your final turn airspeed.
• What are the three positions of the interseat sequencing system (ISS)?
• Do aircrews need to report high key every time they orbit after being directed to do so?
• What is the minimum foot separation T-6 crews must maintain from dissimilar aircraft on a parallel taxiway?
• If greater than 45 degrees of bank is required to complete the final turn, what is the recommended course of action?
• What does pulling the firewall shutoff handle cut off?
• What airspeed should be maintained after the closed pullup until mid-field?
• What altitude should aircraft climb to when following the Vance Local Climbout on track 175?
• At what pressure does the hydraulic system pressure relief valve open?
• What is the maximum airspeed for flying through turbulence?
• At what wind speed are landing flaps discouraged due to side load stress on landing gear?
• When should you initiate recovery from a traffic pattern stall?
• Where should you turn crosswind on a break point carry through?
• Natural stall warning occurs approximately how many knots before the stall in power-off stalls?
• How many static wicks are installed on each wing of the T-6A?
• Which of the following configurations does NOT stop bleed air inflow?
• What are the specifications of the main battery in the T-6A?
• What is the maximum allowable ramp weight for the aircraft?
• How much altitude is typically lost when executing a turn in an ELP at a 45-degree bank?
• In above/below mode, what is the extended display range for traffic above/below the aircraft?
• What is the pressure in the normal hydraulic system?
• Are restarts possible with both an engine-driven low-pressure fuel pump and boost pump failure?
• What is the purpose of establishing a pre-briefed fuel state for joker fuel?
• What is the designated track for Vance One departure when taking off from 17L?
• What is the minimum airspeed required to execute a circling approach?
• Which hydraulic system is the brake system independent of?
• How many static wicks are located on the T-6A tail and elevator?
• Which of the following statements is true regarding the rudder trim aid device?
• When does the AOA indexer illuminate on the T-6A?
• Aircraft that have full stopped during a lightning call must remain where until cleared?
• What is the minimum speed when setting up for final turn traffic pattern stalls?
• From what altitude and airspeed range can the Martin-Baker ejection seat provide safe escape?
• If carrying through initial in the Eastside's pattern while in emergency procedures, what should you expect?
• How soon after engine shutdown should the oil level be serviced for accuracy?
• How much altitude is usually lost during recovery from a wings-level stall with prompt application of recovery power?
• During an approach, how should the pilot react to signs of a hard landing?
• What is the capacity of the hydraulic system in the T-6A?
• What altitude is required for completing configured aircraft slips during training?
• What are the two positions of the ignition switch?
• What is the expected torque range when in idle on the ground?
• When should gear be lowered during a forced landing according to ORM 3-2-1?
• Which of the following statements is true regarding the operations in restricted patterns?
• What does the illumination of both red and amber OIL PX annunciators indicate?
• What is the diameter of the four-blade Hartzell propeller used in the T-6?
• True or False: A fire warning light appearing without other indications is considered a confirmed fire.
• What is the minimum controllable airspeed plus how many KIAS to maintain until established on final after a controllability check?
• Where can the chip detector be found?
• What airspeed should be maintained on recovery unless directed otherwise?
• What is the calculated glide distance for a T-6 at 125 KIAS after losing 2,000 feet of altitude?
• What should the aircraft configuration be before starting a descent on glide path during a straight-in approach?
• Which statement is true about the processing of numbers on the PEDD?
• What is the birdstrike resistance capability of the windscreen at airspeeds up to 270 knots?
• True or False: ORM 3-2-1 applies to both PELs and FLs.
• What is considered a good low key position for an ELP?
• What two parameters are measured using the altitude method in the ELP?
• What type of parachute does the Martin-Baker ejection seat use?
• Which ECS systems utilize engine bleed air?
• Is emergency flap operation available if the auxiliary battery is the only electrical power source?
• If the AUX BAT light does not illuminate, what is the percentage of capacity for the auxiliary battery?
• How is the recovery during a wings-level stall best characterized?
• What is the minimum speed on an instrument approach for the T-6A?
• Does the ADS-B transponder use WOW to determine its in air/on ground status?
• What should a pilot do if they are approaching a raised barrier during flight?
• What is the maximum allowable psi difference for the hydraulic systems?
• True or False: If the emergency accumulator is discharged, the EHYD PX LO annunciator will remain illuminated until the system pressurizes.
• What is the minimum extension required for the nose gear strut?
• Which method can be used to determine if on profile for an ELP?
• What is the maximum allowable weight in the baggage compartment?
• How is normal recovery fuel defined?
• What feature is included in the T-6's oil pressure monitoring system?
• What happens to the trim system after takeoff trim has been set?
• What is the expected amperage of the generator while inflight?
• What is the minimum separation in feet required to cross the runway threshold when using alternate sides?
• Which information is displayed on the Engine Systems Display (ESD)?
• True or False: All numbers provided by the AEDD are processed by the PMU.
• An amber CKPT ALT annunciator illuminates if cockpit pressure altitude rises above what level?
• What should you NOT do during ground operations if the PCL is moved to cutoff?
• What does "situational awareness" refer to in the aspect of CRM?
• During an ELP, at what distance should you configure the aircraft for landing?
• True or False: Engaging RAM/DUMP will stop bleed air inflow.
• When calling for taxi clearance after landing, what signal is crucial to note?
• True or False: The canopy defog must be off during takeoff and landing.
• What is the UHF GUARD frequency used in aviation communications?
• Is the PCL connected to the fuel management unit mechanically or electrically?
• At Eastside, when are aircrews required to be at 2300 feet MSL?
• What is the maximum altitude at which the Martin-Baker ejection seat functions safely?
• What altitude should be aimed for when trimming during an ELP?
• What is the maximum ITT when in idle?
• On initial power application, what indicates a failure in the OBOGS system?
• What is the optimum energy level for aerobatic maneuvering in the MOA?
• What does the term "emergency fuel" imply?
• What does a flashing green light signify when on the ground?
• When Eastside operates under a restricted pattern, what is true about straight-ins?
• At what altitude does the manual override handle become necessary for initiating seat/pilot separation?
• What is the deflection angle of the flaps in LDG position?
• If the Vance Altimeter falls below 29.92, what is the maximum altitude to maintain using the high block?
• When is the amber EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminated?
• What is the pressure in the emergency hydraulic system?
• If the pattern at the inside runway is open, what should you maintain until an IFR clearance is given?
• When establishing in the pattern after canceling IFR, what squawk should be set?
• What is the wingspan of the T-6 aircraft?
• What is the length of the T-6 aircraft?
• At what airspeed does maneuvering speed occur?
• Which of the following parameters is NOT used by the TAD to compute the desired rudder trim tab position?
• At what DME should you contact departure control after takeoff?
• What is the propeller overspeed limit?
• What is the primary frequency that the ELT uses for civilian aircraft distress?
• Upon maintaining VFR breakout altitude after "INSUFFICIENT SPACING, RETURN TO THE PATTERN," what is expected?
• Sustained aggravated spins in excess of 2 turns have the potential to exceed what limits?
• An entry speed of 160 KIAS will typically result in how much altitude gain during a power on stall?
• When is it essential for pilots to be aware of their recovery fuel state?
• Use caution when braking at speeds above what KIAS?
• What range should the green indicator be in when checking hydraulic fluid level?
• When flying in an ELP, what is the approximate horizontal distance achieved by trading 10 knots of extra airspeed with a feathered prop?
• What does a green gear light indicate?
• How many temperature sensing sources does the ECS have downstream of the heat exchanger to alert the pilot of overtemp?
• During a turning power on stall, what is the recommended bank angle?
• Are solo students permitted to fly in a restricted pattern?
• To which computer does the primary pitot static system provide information?
• What are the six aspects of Crew Resource Management (CRM)?
• When does the igniters and boost pump deactivate during engine operation?
• With two aircraft on crosswind, which aircraft has priority?
• What are the three phases of a spin?
• Does the PMU provide engine protection during airstarts according to the provided information?
• What mode is indicated when both the PMU FAIL and PMU STATUS annunciators illuminate?
• When should you declare minimum fuel to the controlling agency?
• When should a G-awareness exercise be accomplished?
• Which of the following statements is true regarding G tolerance in the aircraft?
• What is the slipstream effect?
• Are extended low key ELPs allowed during a restricted pattern on the Eastside and Dogface?
• Which P3 port does the OBOGS utilize?
• At what N1 percentage does an engine that has flamed out rotate below?
• What is the maximum time limit for maintaining a bank angle of 30 degrees with ice accumulation?
• What does the middle probe of the wing fuel provide?
• What is the typical approach to entering the pattern from a high pattern?
• Which component allows lubrication to continue in case of a clogged main oil filter?
• Which display provides cockpit pressure altitude and differential pressure?
• What happens if the N1 does not shift from flight idle to ground idle upon landing?
• When should you execute an emergency engine shutdown on the ground?
• What is the recommended method for aligning with the runway during takeoff?
• What is the minimum airspeed for the closed pullup maneuver?
• When does the fuel auto balance system start closing motive flow from the light tank?
• What defines Maximum Abort Speed?
• What occurs if the ST READY annunciator illuminates during engine start?
• How many independent pitot static systems does the T-6 aircraft have?
• Where should the reference point be for flaps takeoff during downwind?
• What is the operational range of the accelerometer in the T-6A?
• What is the primary focus of a radar initial point?
• The flaps can be extended to achieve what effect in the T-6 aircraft?
• When is it recommended to conduct a full stop with flaps takeoff?
• How many annunciators from this list are typically illuminated: CANOPY, GEN, OIL PX?
• What is indicated by a flashing red light when airborne?
• What is the minimum distance for initiating turns on departure?
• What must be set to ON for the Air Data Computer to be automatically powered up?
• What altitude change is expected from a barrel roll?
• Is Air Force approved deicing fluid allowed for use on the canopy/transparency?
• Input for the primary attitude and heading display is provided by which system?
• What is the maximum bank angle allowed during a closed pullup?
• When departing the inside runway with an open pattern, what must you maintain until IFR clearance is issued?
• What is the maximum allowable difference between the accelerometers in the two cockpits?
• When in normal mode, traffic will display on the TCAS when it is how many feet above/below the aircraft?
• What is considered a suitable landing area for the T-6A?
• What is the primary role of the Engine Systems Display (ESD) within the aircraft?
• What is the recommended airspeed for a chandelle?
• How many antennas are mounted on and in the T-6 aircraft?
• How many pounds of usable fuel can be provided through the single point refueling system?
• Approximately how long does a normal gear extension/retraction sequence take?
• Can the speed brake be stopped at an intermediate deflection?
• What should be done once established in the local traffic pattern concerning fuel status?
• How does an engine failure affect the propeller under normal conditions?
• Which pilot plays a key role in determining the amount of braking used in the T-6A?
• Primary air data information is presented through which three electronic instrument displays?
• What is the outside air temperature threshold at which the PMU goes offline?
• With ice accumulation, maneuvers are restricted to what maximum bank angle and G forces, up to stall warning system activation?
• Is it possible to land with aileron trim fully deflected?
• What is the voltage and amperage of the starter/generator in the T-6A?
• What altitude should you climb to when departing from 35R?
• What is the maximum speed for penetrating thunderstorms?
• How do you breakout from High key?
• What is the minimum battery voltage below which external power should not be connected?
• Above what altitude does the PMU raise N1 to maintain Np above 80%?
• What could be observed regarding propeller movement during a flameout?
• What two things are required for a positive transfer of aircraft control?
• What is observed about airspeed during a spiral?
• When does the amber HYDR FL LO annunciator illuminate?
• At what temperature do the temperature sensors activate the DUCT TEMP light?
• When departing 17L, what altitude will you climb to and what will you track?
• What gases are contained in the fire warning system and where are they located?
• Which of the following describes a way the propeller is feathered?
• What is the maximum airspeed you should fly with a shattered or damaged canopy?
• When would you use a FEVER check?
• Does extending the flaps aggravate the roll off tendency at stall?
• What does the FUEL BAL annunciator indicate?
• How many knots above stall speed does the stick shaker activate?
• What is the correct method to stop bleed air inflow in the T-6 aircraft?
• What type of data does the Air Data Computer primarily process?
• During an airstart attempt, what action should be taken if there is no rise in ITT within a specific time frame?
• How many fuel probes are there, excluding the optical fuel probes?
• Approximately how long will the auxiliary battery power the items on the auxiliary battery bus?
• If the cockpit temperature control sensor detects a temperature above what threshold, the heat exchanger bypass valve closes fully?
• In the event T-6 emergency landing pattern procedures are enacted, what is the next step for the pattern?
• How far down the runway is the standard High Key position in an ELP?
• Why is it crucial to maintain a minimum separation of 6,000 feet behind a dissimilar aircraft?
• True or False: If the seat is unlocked from the catapult, ejection and parachute deployment is impossible.
• When should the desired perch point be established in a no-wind pattern?
• During a Vance Local Climbout, which heading should you follow to reach 5000' MSL from center runway?
• When does a red CKPT PX annunciator illuminate?
• What is one way to retract the speed brake in the T-6 aircraft?
• What situations warrant executing a breakout instead of perching?
• During which phase of flight is propeller pitch adjusted most frequently?
• After seat/pilot separation, the seat survival kit (SSK) is lowered automatically after how many seconds?
• What is the correct procedure to perform a zoom maneuver?